September 19, 2012 Leave a comment
So here’s how the discussion is turning out. Basically, I am investigating how a Lingocentric Quranist (basically the best one in the business) thinks,. Here is a statement he made:
I cannot give you the usage per Quran, because that does not exist. But I can give you the Classical Arabic usage
I ask him this question: Does this mean that the Quran isa passive container of meanings? If so, how does the Quran act as a furqan?
lets see how this turns out.